6. SSC JE – BUILDING MATERIALS FULL MOCK TEST (200 MCQs)

 

SSC JE – BUILDING MATERIALS

FULL MOCK TEST (200 MCQs)

PART A : QUESTIONS 1–100

Level: Easy → Moderate
Pattern: SSC JE
Syllabus Covered: Cement, Lime, Aggregates, Concrete, Bricks, Stones, Timber, Steel, Bitumen, Paints, Glass, Plastics, Modern Materials


🔹 SECTION A — CEMENT, LIME & GYPSUM (1–25)

1. The main function of gypsum in cement is to

A. Increase strength
B. Control setting time
C. Reduce heat of hydration
D. Increase fineness

Ans: B
Explanation: Gypsum controls the hydration of C₃A and prevents flash setting.


2. The compound responsible for early strength in cement is

A. C₂S
B. C₃S
C. C₃A
D. C₄AF

Ans: B
Explanation: Tricalcium silicate hydrates quickly and gives early strength.


3. Soundness of cement refers to

A. Strength of cement
B. Resistance to expansion
C. Fineness
D. Setting speed

Ans: B
Explanation: Sound cement does not undergo harmful expansion after setting.


4. Which test is used to check soundness of cement?

A. Vicat test
B. Le-Chatelier test
C. Slump test
D. Blaine test

Ans: B
Explanation: Le-Chatelier apparatus measures expansion of cement.


5. Initial setting time of OPC should not be less than

A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes

Ans: B
Explanation: As per IS codes, minimum initial setting time is 30 minutes.


6. Lime that sets under water is known as

A. Fat lime
B. Lean lime
C. Hydraulic lime
D. Quick lime

Ans: C
Explanation: Hydraulic lime contains clay and sets in wet conditions.


7. The setting of lime mortar takes place due to

A. Hydration
B. Carbonation
C. Oxidation
D. Crystallization

Ans: B
Explanation: Lime reacts with CO₂ in air forming CaCO₃.


8. Quick lime is chemically

A. CaCO₃
B. CaO
C. Ca(OH)₂
D. CaSO₄

Ans: B
Explanation: Quick lime is calcium oxide.


9. Which cement is preferred for mass concrete works?

A. OPC
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. Low heat cement
D. White cement

Ans: C
Explanation: Low heat cement reduces temperature rise and cracking.


10. Portland Pozzolana Cement contains

A. Lime
B. Fly ash
C. Gypsum
D. Clay

Ans: B
Explanation: PPC contains pozzolanic materials like fly ash.


11. Which cement is used for marine structures?

A. OPC
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. Sulphate resisting cement
D. White cement

Ans: C
Explanation: SRC resists sulphate attack in sea water.


12. Excess gypsum in cement causes

A. Quick setting
B. Delayed setting
C. Expansion and cracks
D. Reduced strength only

Ans: C
Explanation: Too much gypsum causes excessive expansion.


13. High alumina cement gains most of its strength in

A. 1 day
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 28 days

Ans: A
Explanation: HAC gains very high early strength.


14. The fineness of cement mainly affects

A. Colour
B. Strength development
C. Weight
D. Density

Ans: B
Explanation: Finer cement hydrates faster and gains strength quickly.


15. Which cement is used for decorative works?

A. OPC
B. PPC
C. White cement
D. SRC

Ans: C


16. Shelf life of cement is about

A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year

Ans: C
Explanation: Cement starts losing strength after 6 months of storage.


17. Slaking of lime means

A. Burning of limestone
B. Mixing lime with water
C. Drying of lime
D. Grinding of lime

Ans: B
Explanation: Quick lime reacts with water to form slaked lime.


18. Fat lime sets

A. In air
B. Under water
C. In damp soil
D. Under pressure

Ans: A


19. Pozzolanic materials react with

A. Cement
B. Water
C. Lime
D. Gypsum

Ans: C


20. Which cement is suitable for hot weather concreting?

A. Rapid hardening cement
B. Low heat cement
C. High alumina cement
D. White cement

Ans: B


21. Final setting time of cement should not exceed

A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 10 hours

Ans: C


22. Which test determines standard consistency of cement?

A. Slump test
B. Vicat test
C. Blaine test
D. Soundness test

Ans: B


23. Main raw material for cement is

A. Clay
B. Limestone
C. Gypsum
D. Sand

Ans: B


24. Cement that sets very quickly is

A. OPC
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. Quick setting cement
D. White cement

Ans: C


25. Which cement is best for sewage works?

A. OPC
B. PPC
C. SRC
D. White cement

Ans: C


🔹 SECTION B — AGGREGATES (26–50)

26. Aggregates occupy about ___ of concrete volume

A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

Ans: C
Explanation: Aggregates form the bulk of concrete volume.


27. Bulking of sand is due to

A. Air
B. Water film
C. Clay
D. Dust

Ans: B


28. Bulking is maximum at moisture content of about

A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%

Ans: B


29. Sieve size separating fine and coarse aggregate is

A. 2.36 mm
B. 4.75 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 1.18 mm

Ans: B


30. Flakiness index indicates

A. Strength
B. Shape
C. Texture
D. Porosity

Ans: B


31. The toughness of aggregate is measured by

A. Crushing test
B. Impact test
C. Abrasion test
D. Soundness test

Ans: B


32. The hardness of aggregate is tested by

A. Impact test
B. Crushing test
C. Abrasion test
D. Soundness test

Ans: C


33. Soundness of aggregate indicates

A. Resistance to crushing
B. Resistance to weathering
C. Resistance to impact
D. Resistance to abrasion

Ans: B


34. Specific gravity of normal aggregates is about

A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.6
D. 3.5

Ans: C


35. Rounded aggregates provide

A. Higher strength
B. Less workability
C. Better workability
D. More voids

Ans: C


36. Angular aggregates provide

A. Better finish
B. Higher strength
C. Less bond
D. More workability

Ans: B


37. Well graded aggregates lead to

A. More voids
B. Less cement consumption
C. Less strength
D. Poor finish

Ans: B


38. Lightweight aggregates are used to

A. Increase strength
B. Reduce dead load
C. Increase cost
D. Increase density

Ans: B


39. Organic impurities in sand are tested by

A. Sieve test
B. Colour test
C. Abrasion test
D. Crushing test

Ans: B


40. Which is an artificial aggregate?

A. Sand
B. Gravel
C. Cinder
D. Stone chips

Ans: C


41. Presence of mica in sand results in

A. Increase in strength
B. Loss of strength
C. Increase in workability
D. No effect

Ans: B


42. Fineness modulus represents

A. Strength of aggregate
B. Grading of aggregate
C. Shape of aggregate
D. Texture of aggregate

Ans: B


43. Best aggregate for RCC is

A. Soft stone
B. Porous stone
C. Hard crushed stone
D. Brick bats

Ans: C


44. Aggregate impact value should be less than

A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 45%

Ans: C
Explanation: For good quality aggregate, impact value ≤ 30%.


45. The test for resistance to abrasion is

A. Los Angeles test
B. Vicat test
C. Slump test
D. Le-Chatelier test

Ans: A


46. Which aggregate gives minimum voids?

A. Single sized
B. Well graded
C. Flaky
D. Elongated

Ans: B


47. The bulk density of aggregate depends on

A. Shape
B. Grading
C. Moisture
D. All of these

Ans: D


48. Coarse aggregate is retained on

A. 2.36 mm sieve
B. 4.75 mm sieve
C. 600 micron sieve
D. 300 micron sieve

Ans: B


49. Fine aggregate passes through

A. 10 mm sieve
B. 4.75 mm sieve
C. 2.36 mm sieve
D. 1.18 mm sieve

Ans: B


50. Aggregate crushing value indicates

A. Toughness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Durability

Ans: C


🔹 SECTION C — CONCRETE (51–75)

51. Concrete gains strength due to

A. Evaporation
B. Hydration of cement
C. Carbonation
D. Oxidation

Ans: B


52. Workability of concrete means

A. Strength
B. Durability
C. Ease of placing
D. Setting time

Ans: C


53. Slump test is suitable for

A. Very dry concrete
B. Low workability concrete
C. Medium workability concrete
D. SCC

Ans: C


54. Compaction factor test is used for

A. High workability
B. Low workability
C. Flowing concrete
D. SCC

Ans: B


55. Increase in water–cement ratio leads to

A. Higher strength
B. Lower strength
C. Faster curing
D. Better durability

Ans: B


56. Curing of concrete is done to

A. Increase temperature
B. Maintain moisture
C. Improve colour
D. Reduce setting time

Ans: B


57. Minimum curing period for OPC is

A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days

Ans: C


58. Bleeding in concrete causes

A. Increase in strength
B. Laitance formation
C. Faster setting
D. Reduced temperature

Ans: B


59. Segregation occurs mainly due to

A. Proper mixing
B. Excess water
C. Fine sand
D. High cement

Ans: B


60. Air entrainment improves

A. Strength
B. Freeze-thaw resistance
C. Setting time
D. Density

Ans: B


61. Fly ash in concrete improves

A. Early strength
B. Workability
C. Setting speed
D. Colour

Ans: B


62. Standard cube size for testing concrete is

A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 300 mm

Ans: B


63. Standard age for concrete strength test is

A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 28 days

Ans: D


64. Shrinkage in concrete is mainly due to

A. Expansion
B. Loss of moisture
C. Cement reaction
D. Load

Ans: B


65. Creep in concrete means

A. Sudden failure
B. Long-term deformation
C. Increase in strength
D. Cracking

Ans: B


66. Sulphate attack mainly affects

A. C₂S
B. C₃S
C. C₃A
D. C₄AF

Ans: C


67. Ready mix concrete is produced in

A. Site
B. Laboratory
C. Batching plant
D. Mixer

Ans: C


68. Shotcrete is applied by

A. Pouring
B. Pumping
C. Spraying
D. Casting

Ans: C


69. Self-compacting concrete flows due to

A. Extra water
B. Superplasticizers
C. More cement
D. Air

Ans: B


70. Durable concrete requires

A. High w/c ratio
B. Low w/c ratio
C. More sand
D. Less cement

Ans: B


71. Retarders are used to

A. Increase setting speed
B. Delay setting
C. Increase strength
D. Reduce shrinkage

Ans: B


72. Accelerators are used to

A. Delay setting
B. Speed up setting
C. Reduce heat
D. Reduce strength

Ans: B


73. Plasticizers mainly

A. Increase water
B. Reduce water
C. Reduce cement
D. Reduce sand

Ans: B


74. Which concrete is best for congested reinforcement?

A. Lean concrete
B. Normal concrete
C. SCC
D. Lime concrete

Ans: C


75. Air-entrained concrete is useful in

A. Hot climate
B. Cold climate
C. Dry climate
D. Humid climate

Ans: B


🔹 SECTION D — BRICKS, STONES & TIMBER (76–100)

76. Standard size of modular brick is

A. 190 × 90 × 90 mm
B. 200 × 100 × 100 mm
C. 230 × 110 × 75 mm
D. 250 × 120 × 75 mm

Ans: A


77. Water absorption of good bricks should not exceed

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

Ans: C


78. Efflorescence in bricks is due to

A. Clay
B. Sand
C. Soluble salts
D. Cement

Ans: C


79. Best bond for load bearing walls is

A. Stretcher bond
B. Flemish bond
C. English bond
D. Stack bond

Ans: C


80. Granite is an example of

A. Sedimentary rock
B. Metamorphic rock
C. Igneous rock
D. Artificial stone

Ans: C


81. Marble is formed from

A. Limestone
B. Sandstone
C. Shale
D. Basalt

Ans: A


82. Seasoning of timber is done to

A. Increase weight
B. Reduce moisture
C. Improve colour
D. Increase elasticity

Ans: B


83. The most durable timber is

A. Sal
B. Teak
C. Pine
D. Deodar

Ans: B


84. Natural defect in timber is

A. Knot
B. Warp
C. Split
D. Twist

Ans: A


85. Termite attack mainly affects

A. Steel
B. Concrete
C. Timber
D. Brick

Ans: C


86. Timber preservative used for sleepers is

A. Paint
B. Varnish
C. Creosote oil
D. Oil paint

Ans: C


87. Plywood is made by

A. Heating wood
B. Gluing thin veneers
C. Cutting timber
D. Seasoning wood

Ans: B


88. Fire bricks are made of

A. Silica
B. Alumina
C. Magnesia
D. Clay

Ans: B


89. Best stone for heavy engineering works is

A. Limestone
B. Sandstone
C. Granite
D. Marble

Ans: C


90. Porosity of good building stone should be

A. High
B. Moderate
C. Low
D. Very high

Ans: C


91. Slate is mainly used for

A. Flooring
B. Roofing
C. Masonry
D. Foundations

Ans: B


92. Over-burnt bricks are

A. Soft
B. Weak
C. Brittle and dark
D. Light weight

Ans: C


93. Frog in brick helps to

A. Reduce weight
B. Improve bond
C. Save cement
D. Increase strength

Ans: B


94. Best timber for beams is

A. Pine
B. Sal
C. Teak
D. Deodar

Ans: B


95. Defect in timber due to fungi is

A. Knot
B. Shake
C. Rot
D. Warp

Ans: C


96. Veneer thickness is usually

A. 1–2 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–10 mm
D. 10–15 mm

Ans: A


97. Stone used as road metal is

A. Marble
B. Granite
C. Basalt
D. Limestone

Ans: C


98. Engineering bricks are used where

A. Appearance is important
B. Strength is important
C. Colour is important
D. Cost is important

Ans: B


99. The colour of good brick is

A. Yellow
B. Light red
C. Deep red
D. White

Ans: C


100. Best wood for furniture is

A. Pine
B. Sal
C. Teak
D. Deodar

Ans: C

Post a Comment

Previous Post Next Post